Whether it was lawful for a divorced wife to have another husband?

❌ Objection 1 : It would seem that it was lawful for a divorced wife to have another husband. For in divorce the husband did a greater wrong by divorcing his wife than the wife by being divorced. But the husband could, without sin, marry another wife. Therefore the wife could without sin, marry another husband.

❌ Objection 2 : Further, Augustine, speaking about bigamy, says (De Bono Conjug. xv, xviii) that "when it was the manner it was no sin." Now at the time of the Old Law it was the custom for a wife after divorce to marry another husband: "When she is departed and marrieth another husband," etc. Therefore the wife sinned not by marrying another husband.

❌ Objection 3 : Further, our Lord showed that the justice of the New Testament is superabundant in comparison with the justice of the Old Testament (Mt. 5). Now He said that it belongs to the superabundant justice of the New Testament that the divorced wife marry not another husband (Mt. 5:32). Therefore it was lawful in the Old Law.

❌ Objection 4 : On the contrary, are the words of Mt. 5:32, "He that shall marry her that is put away committeth adultery." Now adultery was never permitted in the Old Law. Therefore it was not lawful for the divorced wife to have another husband.

❌ Objection 5 : Further, it is written (Dt. 24:3) that a divorced woman who marries another husband "is defiled, and is become abominable before the Lord." Therefore she sinned by marrying another husband.