Whether matrimony still comes under a precept?

❌ Objection 1 : It would seem that matrimony still comes under a precept. For a precept is binding so long as it is not recalled. But the primary institution of matrimony came under a precept, as stated in the text (Sent. iv, D, 26); nor do we read anywhere that this precept was recalled, but rather that it was confirmed (Mt. 19:6): "What . . . God hath joined together let no man put asunder." Therefore matrimony still comes under a precept.

❌ Objection 2 : Further, the precepts of natural law are binding in respect of all time. Now matrimony is of natural law, as stated above (Article [1]). Therefore, etc.

❌ Objection 3 : Further, the good of the species is better than the good of the individual, "for the good of the State is more Godlike than the good of one man" (Ethic. i, 2). Now the precept given to the first man concerning the preservation of the good of the individual by the act of the nutritive power is still in force. Much more therefore does the precept concerning matrimony still hold, since it refers to the preservation of the species.

❌ Objection 4 : Further, where the reason of an obligation remains the same, the obligation must remain the same. Now the reason why men were bound to marry in olden times was lest the human race should cease to multiply. Since then the result would be the same, if each one were free to abstain from marriage, it would seem that matrimony comes under a precept.