Whether this sacrament was suitably instituted in the New Law?

❌ Objection 1 : It would seem that this sacrament was unsuitably instituted in the New Law. Because those things which belong to the natural law need not to be instituted. Now it belongs to the natural law that one should repent of the evil one has done: for it is impossible to love good without grieving for its contrary. Therefore Penance was unsuitably instituted in the New Law.

❌ Objection 2 : Further, that which existed in the Old Law had not to be instituted in the New. Now there was Penance in the old Law wherefore the Lord complains (Jer. 8:6) saying: "There is none that doth penance for his sin, saying: What have I done?" Therefore Penance should not have been instituted in the New Law.

❌ Objection 3 : Further, Penance comes after Baptism, since it is a second plank, as stated above (Article [6]). Now it seems that our Lord instituted Penance before Baptism, because we read that at the beginning of His preaching He said (Mt. 4:17): "Do penance, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand." Therefore this sacrament was not suitably instituted in the New Law.

❌ Objection 4 : Further, the sacraments of the New Law were instituted by Christ, by Whose power they work, as stated above (Question [62], Article [5]; Question [64], Article [1]). But Christ does not seem to have instituted this sacrament, since He made no use of it, as of the other sacraments which He instituted. Therefore this sacrament was unsuitably instituted in the New Law.