Whether in Christ there was the fulness of grace?

❌ Objection 1 : It would seem that in Christ there was not the fulness of grace. For the virtues flow from grace, as was said above (FS, Question [110], Article [4]). But in Christ there were not all the virtues; for there was neither faith nor hope in Him, as was shown above (Articles [3],4). Therefore in Christ there was not the fulness of grace.

❌ Objection 2 : Further, as is plain from what was said above (FS, Question [111], Article [2]), grace is divided into operating and cooperating. Now operating grace signifies that whereby the ungodly is justified, which has no place in Christ, Who never lay under any sin. Therefore in Christ there was not the fulness of grace.

❌ Objection 3 : Further, it is written (James 1:17): "Every best gift and every perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of lights." But what comes thus is possessed partially, and not fully. Therefore no creature, not even the soul of Christ, can have the fulness of the gifts of grace.