Whether Christ should have been circumcised?

❌ Objection 1 : It would seem that Christ should not have been circumcised. For on the advent of the reality, the figure ceases. But circumcision was prescribed to Abraham as a sign of the covenant concerning his posterity, as may be seen from Gn. 17. Now this covenant was fulfilled in Christ's birth. Therefore circumcision should have ceased at once.

❌ Objection 2 : Further, "every action of Christ is a lesson to us" [*Innoc. III, Serm. xxii de Temp.]; wherefore it is written (Jn. 3:15): "I have given you an example, that as I have done to you, so you do also." But we ought not to be circumcised; according to Gal. 5:2: "If you be circumcised, Christ shall profit you nothing." Therefore it seems that neither should Christ have been circumcised.

❌ Objection 3 : Further, circumcision was prescribed as a remedy of original sin. But Christ did not contract original sin, as stated above (Question [14], Article [3]; Question [15], Article [1]). Therefore Christ should not have been circumcised.