Whether Christ as man had the use of free-will in the first instant of His conception?

❌ Objection 1 : It would seem that Christ as man had not the use of free-will in the first instant of His conception. For a thing is, before it acts or operates. Now the use of free-will is an operation. Since, therefore, Christ's soul began to exist in the first instant of His conception, as was made clear above (Question [33], Article [2]), it seems impossible that He should have the use of free-will in the first instant of His conception.

❌ Objection 2 : Further, the use of free-will consists in choice. But choice presupposes the deliberation of counsel: for the Philosopher says (Ethic. iii) that choice is "the desire of what has been previously the object of deliberation." Therefore it seems impossible that Christ should have had the use of free-will in the first instant of His conception.

❌ Objection 3 : Further, the free-will is "a faculty of the will and reason," as stated in the FP, Question [83], Article [2], Objection [2]: consequently the use of free-will is an act of the will and the reason or intellect. But the act of the intellect presupposes an act of the senses; and this cannot exist without proper disposition of the organs---a condition which would seem impossible in the first instant of Christ's conception. Therefore it seems that Christ could not have the use of free-will at the first instant of His conception.