Whether the Old Law comprises ceremonial, besides moral, precepts?

❌ Objection 1 : It would seem that the Old Law does not comprise ceremonial, besides moral, precepts. For every law that is given to man is for the purpose of directing human actions. Now human actions are called moral, as stated above (Question [1], Article [3]). Therefore it seems that the Old Law given to men should not comprise other than moral precepts.

❌ Objection 2 : Further, those precepts that are styled ceremonial seem to refer to the Divine worship. But Divine worship is the act of a virtue, viz. religion, which, as Tully says (De Invent. ii) "offers worship and ceremony to the Godhead." Since, then, the moral precepts are about acts of virtue, as stated above (Article [2]), it seems that the ceremonial precepts should not be distinct from the moral.

❌ Objection 3 : Further, the ceremonial precepts seem to be those which signify something figuratively. But, as Augustine observes (De Doctr. Christ. ii, 3,4), "of all signs employed by men words hold the first place." Therefore there is no need for the Law to contain ceremonial precepts about certain figurative actions.