Whether human law prescribes acts of all the virtues?

❌ Objection 1 : It would seem that human law does not prescribe acts of all the virtues. For vicious acts are contrary to acts of virtue. But human law does not prohibit all vices, as stated above (Article [2]). Therefore neither does it prescribe all acts of virtue.

❌ Objection 2 : Further, a virtuous act proceeds from a virtue. But virtue is the end of law; so that whatever is from a virtue, cannot come under a precept of law. Therefore human law does not prescribe all acts of virtue.

❌ Objection 3 : Further, law is ordained to the common good, as stated above (Question [90], Article [2]). But some acts of virtue are ordained, not to the common good, but to private good. Therefore the law does not prescribe all acts of virtue.