Whether there was any need for a Divine law?

❌ Objection 1 : It would seem that there was no need for a Divine law. Because, as stated above (Article [2]), the natural law is a participation in us of the eternal law. But the eternal law is a Divine law, as stated above (Article [1]). Therefore there was no need for a Divine law in addition to the natural law, and human laws derived therefrom.

❌ Objection 2 : Further, it is written (Ecclus. 15:14) that "God left man in the hand of his own counsel." Now counsel is an act of reason, as stated above (Question [14], Article [1]). Therefore man was left to the direction of his reason. But a dictate of human reason is a human law as stated above (Article [3]). Therefore there is no need for man to be governed also by a Divine law.

❌ Objection 3 : Further, human nature is more self-sufficing than irrational creatures. But irrational creatures have no Divine law besides the natural inclination impressed on them. Much less, therefore, should the rational creature have a Divine law in addition to the natural law.