Whether the law is always something directed to the common good?

❌ Objection 1 : It would seem that the law is not always directed to the common good as to its end. For it belongs to law to command and to forbid. But commands are directed to certain individual goods. Therefore the end of the law is not always the common good.

❌ Objection 2 : Further, the law directs man in his actions. But human actions are concerned with particular matters. Therefore the law is directed to some particular good.

❌ Objection 3 : Further, Isidore says (Etym. v, 3): "If the law is based on reason, whatever is based on reason will be a law." But reason is the foundation not only of what is ordained to the common good, but also of that which is directed private good. Therefore the law is not only directed to the good of all, but also to the private good of an individual.